GCU NURS631 Mid Term Exam

1.            What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia
2.            What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate and action potential.
3.            What type of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis.
4.            Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure.
5.            When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from who. 
6.            Describe the chromosomal defect related to Prader Willi syndrome.
7.            What mechanism can cause hypernatremia
a.            Caused by loss of H20, DM Insufficient H20 intake,
b.            Hypertonic solution
c.             Over secretion of Aldosterone
d.            Cushing Syndrome because of adrenocorticotropic hormone
8.            What are the cause of hyperkalemia
9.            What are likely causes of respiratory acidosis
a.            Depress of respiratory center, disorder of the lung parenchyma, alveolar hypoventilation C02 is retained increase in H+, Co2 excess in blood
b.            Over sedation, brainstem trauma
c.             Pulmonary edema, emphysema, asthma, bronchitis
d.            Acute airway obstruction- does not affect renal buffer mechanism
e.            Chronic COPD-renal compensation is effective and established
10.          When considering white blood cell differentials, acute inflammatory reactions are related to elevations of what leukocyte
11.          In which structure do B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells
12.          Which immunoglobulins is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions
13.          Which T cell control our limits in the immune response to protect the host own tissue against an autoimmune response
14.          The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a rxn that is mediated by class of immunoglobulins
15.          How many months does it take for the newborn to sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells
16.          A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type) blood contains with of the following
17.          Cytokines are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediators
18.          Which cells are primary target for HIV?
19.          The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarilyas a consequence of what type of hormonal event
20.          Perceived stress elicits an emotional anticipatory response that begins where
21.          The most common site for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location
22.          Where is the neurotransmitter norepinephrine secreted?
23.          Thyroid stimulating (TSH) is released to stimulate the thyroid hormone and is inhibited when plasma levels are adequate. What is this an example of
24.          What is the action of calcitonin
25.          Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of what
26.          Which laboratory value would the APRN expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome inappropriateantidiuretic hormone
27.          What are visual disturbances a result of pituitary adenoma
28.          Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of GH in adults?
29.          How is the level of thyroid stimulating hormone in individuals with graves’ Disease impacted?
30.          What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism
31.          A patient dx with DKA has the following lab values PH 7.20, serum glucose 500mg/dl, +ketones, serum K+ 2mcg/L, Serum Na+ 130 mEq/L.  The patient reports that he has been sick with the flu for 1 week.  What relationship do those values have to his insulin deficiency?
32.          When is hypoglycemia followed by reboundhyperglycemia observed in patients
33.          A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, truncal obesity. The clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine diagnosis
34.          A person may experience which complications as a result of a reduction in parathyroid hormone.
35.          Which nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and the maturation of erythrocytes
36.          Which type of anemia is characterized by fatigue, weakness, dyspnea as well as conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle concave nails
37.          In infectious monocleosis (IM) what does the monospot test detect
38.          Vitamin K is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by what
39.          How is erythroblastosis fetalis defined
40.          Which type of anemia occurs as a result of thalassemia
41.          Which factor is responsible for hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with HTN
42.          What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone
43.          A family friend shows a recent lab report, he would like you to interpret the findings. Lab values show hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and PTH.  What is the cause of this this and risks for
44.          Why don’t patient with type 2 DM generally develop ketoacidosis
45.          You have diagnosed your patient with DI. In order to determine the causative area, the patient is given an ADH like medication. The lab reports this resulted in an increase urine osmolarity. What diagnose would give this patient
46.          What are the earliest signs of diabetic neuropathy
47.          A patient has just beendiagnosed with hypothyroidism by her physician. According to the lab reports it is determined to secondary hypothyroidism. What results support the finding
48.          Where is the region responsible for motor aspects of speech located?
49.          Why is status elipiticus considered a medical emergency
50.          Tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia and postural abnormalities are a result of the atrophy of neurons in what part of the brain
51.          A herniation of which disk will likely result in motor and sensory changes of the lateral lower legs and soles of the feet
52.          Which condition poses the highest risk for a CVA
53.          A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 day ago suddenly develops severe HTN and bradycardia.  He reports server head pain and blurred vision.  What is the most likely explanation for the clinical manifestations
54.          Gillian Barre syndrome is proceeded by a viral illness
55.          In which disorder are acetylcholine receptor antibodies (IgG) produced
56.          Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor
57.          What will an infant diagnosed with hydrocephalus be observed to demonstrate?
58.          Your patient tells your that she has been waking up for days with severe right-side HA, unilateral lacrimation, and nasal congestion. What is the dx
59.          Bells Palsy is due to an inflammation of the what cranial nerve